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 In
my King James New Testament, at Mark 10:10, I read, "And in
the house his disciples asked him again of the same
matter." (i.e., divorce.) Asked him again (Greek, palin)
suggests a previous question from them, and now, again. The
American Standard has essentially the same wording. But there is
no evidence of the disciples asking him "of this matter"
the FIRST time, i.e., in this time reference. So, when I read
the New American Standard, fifth edition, I felt the translators
really had something. The verse read, "And back in
the house again, the disciples began questioning Him
about this matter." (Underscored words are in
italics, indicating they are supplied.) This rendering suggests
the disciples had been in the house previously, and now, in the
house again, they question him.
But
because I was in a written debate where the position of
"again" was of importance, I wrote to the NAS
publishers (Lockman Foundation) and asked WHY the position of
"again" had been changed. Someone replied (the letter
is home in my files) they did not It know why the change, but
that it would be brought up in the next meeting of translators,
and I would then be informed of their reasons. I have not heard
further from them.
Then,
after some years, I chanced upon
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a later edition of the New
American Standard Bible, and found that Mk. 10:10 read,
"And in the house the disciples began questioning
Him about this again." Nestlé’s Greek text is literally
translated by Marshall —"And in the house again the
disciples about this questioned him" — in this order, and
with NO word for "began." Apparently the NAS
translators had decided to return "again" to the
position occupied in KJ, AS, and other translations, and supply
"began" to conform to the absence of previous
questions by the disciples. I do not know when this change was
made, nor if my letter and perhaps others like it had influenced
the change.
But
by now the New English Bible was out, with "When they were
indoors again the disciples questioned him about this
matter" — no italics.
My
limited investigation, with my limited knowledge of Greek, does
not tell me how the position of "palin" (again) is
determined. I don't even know why I'm telling this to you,
except for its interest to Bible readers. Perhaps, too, it will
cause all of us to be more cautious about taking changes in
long-standing texts. And maybe some reader with greater
knowledge of the Greek will write me an explanation of this
whole matter.
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