|
Bro. Turner:
 Does
1 Cor. 14:35 forbid women to ask questions in a Bible class
where the whole church is assembled? WTG Reply:
Some
basic considerations of women in society were dealt with in an
earlier query page (Cf. V.15, n.8). It is my conclusion that the
"women" of 1 Cor. 14: were to keep silent when
Spirit-filled men were speaking — being "in subjection,
as also saith the law." It is the subjection that is
primary here — one may even discern a reflective reference to
previous instructions, in 1 Cor. 11:3-f. NOT spk. BUT b.n.
subj., is a Greek method of indicating comparative degree (See
Jn. 6:27; 1 Pet. 3:3-4), the NOT being qualified by the more
important subjection. It is no unlimited negative.
And
what did the law say? It seems Paul had Gen. 3:16 in
mind, where Eve was told, "he shall rule over thee."
In the LXX the word is kurieuo, found also in Rom.
6:9:14; 7:1, and meaning, as here, "dominion over."
The "law" Paul cites did not forbid women to speak,
except when such speaking indicated she was not subject to man.
The silence imposed in the special circumstances of 1 Cor. 14:
should not be interpreted to mean she could not, under any
circumstances, speak in the presence of the assembled saints.
She sings (teaching, Col. 3:16) and Peter asked one woman to
speak (Acts 5:8). (I am reminded of one church which took a
woman out of "the assembly" so she could confess faith
in Christ.)
Man's
dominion over woman is not limited to "in church
(assembly)." In fact, I fear "in
| |
assembly" has become
a realm for validating and/or negating — almost as if it was a
congregational consistory. What makes a gathering of saints
"the assembly;" and where did you get your
information?? How many members does it take to have a quorum?
Are we to understand that if there is less than "the
whole church come together (1 Cor. 14: 23) it would have been
all right for the men to speak at the same time? Or for women to
speak? God authorizes saints to do certain things together, and
warns us about "forsaking our own assembling" (Heb.
10:25). But reference is to "the coming together of
ourselves" — the act of gathering, NOT some
official validating quorum.
The
"church" exists and functions (distributively) prior
to gathering (1 Cor. 14:23); and its collective work continues
(through agency) after its gathering (Rom. 16:1; Phil. 2:24-30;
4:15; Col. l:7). "He shall rule over thee" is
applicable both before, during, and after saints have gathered
to worship, or to study the Bible in a class arrangement. It is
not some official "assembly" that makes it wrong for a
woman to "have dominion over a man" (1 Tim. 2:12), but
an all time principle divinely established from the beginning
(v. 13).
"In
church" (1 Cor. 14:19,28,35) is used without the article
(the) to indicate a general rather than a particular
substantive. It contrasts public with private —
NOT a "called assembly as opposed to some other public
gathering of saints; NOT ritualistic Mass in contrast to other
meetings. Let us think long and well on this.
[Previous
Article] [Next
Article]
|
