Bro. Turner:
Can
it be established that the contribution of 1 Cor. 16:2; 2 Cor.
8:9: was sent from a church to a church, a corporate body? Why
can a church send to aid all ages and sexes in another church,
when only "widows indeed" can be helped at home? LSM
Reply:
The
contribution came from a "corporate body" as
shown by (1) Paul's order to "churches of Galatia, even so
do ye" (1 Cor. 16:1-2); (2) the collection made —
from "logeia" "used chiefly of religious
collections for a god, a temple, etc." (see Deissmann,
Light from Ancient East, p. 105; and (3) it was sent by
church-chosen messengers (1 Cor. 16:3; 2 Cor. 9:19).
The
recipients were "saints" (Rom. 15:25-26,31; 1 Cor.
16:1; 2 Cor. 8:4-f) but a "corporate" recipient is not
clearly established in these verses. Such was the case, however,
in the first sending (Acts 11:27-30) where they "sent it to
the elders..." Here, either the elders were the only
needy brethren, or, they received it on behalf of the saints of
their flock.
The
widows "taken into the number" (1 Tim. 5:9) were
apparently supported full-time, and had certain obligations,
which, if neglected, amounted to "casting off their first
faith" (v. 11-12). I don't know all I would like to know
about this. But nothing in Acts 6: suggests the Grecian widows
were "widows indeed" as in 1 Tim. 5.
It
seems "needy saints" (generic) were assisted by the
church, at home and