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 Brother
Turner:
Was
Phoebe (Rom.16:1) a deacon(ess) in the church in the same sense
as in Phil.1:1 and 1Tim. 3:8-13?
LB
Reply:
Bagster's
Lexicon gives "kiakonon" (the word used in Rom. 16:1)
as "accusative, singular, masculine and feminine" of
"diakonos", the same word used in Phil. 1:1 and 1 Tim.
3-8. The word means, basically, "one who renders
service". It is often translated "minister" with
no "official" connotation. In
fact, Vine's Expository Dictionary (under "minister"
says, "Speaking broadly, diakonos views a servant in
relation to his work; doulos, in relation to his master; huperetes,
in relation to his superior; leitourgos, in relation to
public service."
Significantly,
in the writings of the early church "fathers", when
the "deacon" began to be regarded as an
"officer" in the church, they used the "leitourgos"
describing him. This is a perversion of NT usage, both in
concept and terminology. If we could erase the
"official" concept of "deacon" from our
minds, seeing such one as "servant" we would have
little difficulty understanding the application of the term to
Phoebe.
All who "serve" are deacons or deaconess in the
general sense of the word. But the scriptures recognize certain
ones as "servants" in a special sense. 1 Tim. 3:11
says "women in like manner — "
even as in verse 8.(RV). These are obviously qualifications in
some special sense — not simply listing characteristics of
Christians. In 1 Tim. 5:9-f some function of the widow
indeed is under consideration involving a "pledge"
(vs. 11, RV). I do not know all I wish
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I knew about this passage, but it
seems "the number" is more that the "count"
of those helped. It was not wrong for a young widow to marry
(vs. 14) but it would be wrong for her to promise some service,
and then leave this to marry.
Of
course, even if we conclude that specially qualified women were
used as "servants" of the church in a special sense;
(1) this would not remove them from their God-given place under
man (1 Cor. 11:3) and their work would have to be something
consistent with this place; (2) no "official" position
is contemplated, for either men or women
"servants"; (3) and we still could not prove
conclusively that Phoebe was one of those special type of
servants — although this would be my judgement in the matter.
(Took
me a page and one-half to say "I do not know".
Hmmmmmmmmmmm!!)
Bro.
Turner:
What
is meant by "lording it over" the church -- 1 Pet.
5:3?? ET
Reply:
The
word for "overlord" (a single greek word) is used in
Mar. 10:42 with reference to an abuse of civil
rule, as seen among "the Gentiles". Jesus did not
condemn "making decisions" within an allotted
authority given these rulers (Rom. 13) and "making
decisions" within the proper sphere of bishops (or
"business meetings) is not "lording it over" the
church. Unjust, arbitrary rule is forbidden.
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