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STUDY MATERIAL ON "INSTITUTIONAL" ISSUES

THE TREASURY:
(HOW CONGREGATIONS MAY COLLECT AND DISTRIBUTE FUNDS)
- "The Treasury" is an accommodative term which applies to funds gathered by free will
offering from members in a congregation and set aside for the Lord's work for that congregation -- there is both
a "treasuring up" (collection) and a "distribution" to be made. Is one governed by the authority
of scripture but not the other? Without a distribution in mind there is no purpose or reason for a collection --
there is no value just in the act of giving so that the end result is in having a treasury.
- Where in the N.T. is the phrase "treasuring up" (cf. "in store") found?
- Where in the N.T., as it refers to funds being used by a congregation, is the word "distribution"
found?
- The scripture makes a distinction between that which belongs to one privately and that which
has been set aside for the congregation's work.
- What does "laying by in store" mean in 1 Cor. 16:2?
- If this was something done at home, why was it done just on the first day of the week?
- Furthermore, what significance is there in Paul's statement, "...that there be no gatherings
when I come"?
- If each individual treasured up money at home instead of when he assembled with others, would
there not still have to be a gathering when Paul came? Yet Paul's specific reason for commanding a "laying
by in store" was that there would be no gatherings when he got there.
- In Acts 5:1-ff, what conclusion would you draw from Peter's question to Ananias and Sapphira?
-- "Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power?"
- According to Acts 4:34, 37, money was laid "at the apostles feet." What does that
mean?
- In 1 Tim. 5:8, 15, an individual is charged with relieving his own and in vv. 9, 16, the church
is charged with enrolling and relieving widows indeed.
- What is the specific reason given by Paul that a man or woman who believes should relieve their
own widows?
- What does that show in reference to the distinction of uses between the resources belonging
to an individual Christian and the church?
- HOW THE COLLECTION IS COLLECTED:
- From 1 Cor. 16:1-2, what day is authorized for laying by in store? Can you apply some laws of
interpreting language to establish "when" that is to be done?
- From 1 Cor. 16:1-2, who is to do the giving?
- Read 1 Cor. 16:1-2, 2 Cor. 9:6, 7. From these passages what do you learn about the amount which
is to be given? Would there be anything wrong with a church requiring that its members "tithe"? Is there
anything wrong with "pledge cards" as a way of coercing members to commit amounts in their giving?
- Scripturally, may it be said that however an individual may raise money the church may also
raise money? Can you anticipate that this question has a reason? If so, what is the reason?
OBSERVATION: MOST RELIGIOUS PREACHERS DO NOT HAVE A PROBLEM UNDERSTANDING THAT THE COLLECTION
IS TO BE TAKEN "EVERY SUNDAY" THOUGH PAUL SAID, "UPON THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK" AND NOT "EVERY
FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK." WHY DO YOU THINK THAT IS SO?
- DISTRIBUTION -- LAID BY, FOR WHAT?
- A human proverb, not a scriptural proverb, says, "Whatever the individual may do, the church
may also do." Consider that the individual may raise money, legitimately, in several different different business
enterprises. May the church also raise money by being in business? Most Christians would not accept that conclusion
from the human proverb.
- If the collection of funds is governed by a "thus saith the Lord" and limited to a
"free will offering of members", then why should not the distribution also be governed by a "thus
saith the Lord" and limited to those things authorized in scripture as works belonging to the group?
- Can you see that if whatever the individual can do, the church can also do, applies as a human
proverb to the distribution of church funds, then it would also apply to the collection of such funds. That would
mean that if an individual can sell candy to raise funds, then the church could also. If not, why not?
- If resources collected have a purpose and the purpose is not just to fulfill a command to give
nor merely to accumulate to have a treasury, then would you not say that the distribution of those resources must
conform to the purposes for which the collection is made?
- For instance, if several people "chipped in" in order to buy flowers for a friend's
Father who had passed away, the one designated to buy those flowers would not have the right to use that money
throw a party for the young people.
- In the above instance, is having a party for young people bad or is a misappropriation of funds?
- "NOW CONCERNING THE COLLECTION FOR THE ___________________?
- Read Acts 4:34-35; 1 Cor. 16:2; 2 Cor. 8:4, 14; 9:1, 12; Rom. 15:26; Acts 6:1-2; 1 Tim. 5:16.
- In all of these passages WHO is to be helped; that is, to whom was distribution made?
- CHURCHES USED THEIR RESOURCES TO SUPPORT PREACHERS.
- Read Phil. 4:15-16; 2 Cor. 11:7-9.
- In these passages WHO received the assistance from the churches?
- A congregation ministers not only physical relief to needy Christians, but it also supports
the work of preaching by supporting preachers; hence, by carnal things it is able to accomplish spiritual work
(note above passages). Yet, in the scriptures, only one collection is mentioned. The necessary implication from
all the available information (remember the law of harmony), is that one collection is intended for both purposes.
- THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN BUYING SERVICES AND GIVING TO AN ORGANIZATION:
- A congregation may buy electricity in order to carry on its worship and teaching work. May a
congregation donate money to an electric company?
- A congregation may buy services from a hospital in providing for the needs of a sick member.
May a congregation donate money to a hospital?
- Most brethren recognize the difference between buying and giving when it applies to raising
money for the Lord's work. On that basis they would object to the church having a "pie supper" to raise
money for its work. If that difference applies to the "collecting" end of the funds, would the difference
not also apply to the disbursing of those funds? If not, why not?
["Institutional"
Issues Outline] [Introduction] [Lesson 1]
[Lesson 2] [Lesson 3] [Lesson
4] [Lesson 5] [Lesson 6]
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